Santa Clara Protocol Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What service is NOT provided by Good Samaritan Hospital?
• How often can 0.3mg of epinephrine be repeated when treating shock in adults?
• Who is responsible for ensuring a hospital follows its trauma center standards?
• Which assessment is important to ensure no distractions are present during a spinal injury assessment?
• What is the review frequency for the protocols under Policy 109?
• What landmark is noted as being south of the 680 freeway?
• Which type of stroke center does Kaiser Foundation Santa Clara provide?
• What is the main goal of the EMS director as per the protocols?
• What is the main topic of variance reporting according to Policy 108?
• Can a victim be classified solely as a major trauma victim?
• Who is the county medical director?
• If a physician decides to assist with patient care, who assumes medical control?
• What might indicate a need for immediate trauma center care?
• What is the treatment for a pediatric patient over 1 year old who has ingested something within the last hour?
• Which of the following hospitals is located in the central diversion zone?
• What is policy 603 related to?
• Which course is NOT listed as a requirement for working in Santa Clara County?
• Does policy 115 allow for refunds?
• What type of facility is El Camino Los Gatos known to be?
• If a patient is at least 12 years old, what types of medical treatment can they consent to without parental approval?
• What should be done if a patient in restraints shows signs of distress?
• What is the recommended treatment for pediatric croup with stridor?
• What documentation must be included in the PCR if a physician was present on scene?
• What action should be taken if EMS personnel retreat during an incident?
• Which of the following is NOT found in policy 603?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding contacting base hospitals?
• Which type of ambulance is considered under the Exclusive Operating Area (EOA) as per Policy 110?
• What might be considered a significant anatomical injury for MTV classification?
• What is a requirement for an adult who wishes to refuse care?
• What is the protocol for patients with pre-existing medical conditions who suffer a burn injury?
• Who is allowed to enter an area that is marked "do not enter" or "do not cross"?
• What is the appropriate marking for a Life Hazard Zone?
• Which of the following is NOT a major burn criterion for MTVs?
• Which position should a woman be placed in during an obstetrical emergency?
• If you are en route to a destination with a patient, when are you allowed to relocate?
• Who is eligible to request a modification to a policy?
• Which type of incident would likely allow ALS to transition care to BLS?
• What should be avoided when handling a prolapsed umbilical cord?
• Which of the following hospitals is part of the central diversion zone?
• What is required for a valid DNR order to be recognized during transport?
• What is the primary communication method used by County EMS?
• In which city is Regional Medical located?
• What is a service offered by Stanford Hospital that is also available at Good Samaritan Hospital?
• What requirement is found in Policy 105 regarding trauma centers?
• Which facility is classified as a Primary Stroke Center?
• Who serves as the health officer for the county?
• What is required for a minor to be court declared emancipated according to Policy 502?
• What is the purpose of fundal massage in a gynecological emergency?
• What factor may warrant special considerations in MTV cases for patients over age 55?
• What does Combat Application Tourniquet (CAT) indicate for use?
• What does the acronym FTS stand for?
• What document lists approved medical abbreviations?
• Where should pediatric MTVs be transported?
• What authority does a Police Department typically hold at a scene involving a deceased individual?
• Through which organization are all trauma centers verified according to policy 113?
• If a variance occurs but the patient is not hurt, how long do you have to report it according to Policy 108?
• What is the minimum requirement for a BLS Unit (Non-Transport)?
• When cellular communication is not possible, what should be used as an alternative method?
• If an air ambulance is being used, who is responsible for making the report?
• What does the abbreviation LHZ represent?
• Where should ambulances position themselves if the scene is protected?
• Which of the following is NOT a sign of severe respiratory distress?
• How often are policies reviewed according to Policy 109?
• Which of the following services is offered by El Camino Los Gatos?
• After transporting a competent adult patient, at which location are they permitted to leave the ambulance?
• If you cannot document the necessary information for a patient refusal, what should you do?
• What is the title of policy 618?
• What should be prioritized if communication with the base hospital fails?
• What type of care is permitted under supportive care with a valid DNR?
• What is the maximum age limit for children to qualify for a pediatric hospital?
• What should a medic do if transport to a trauma center is deemed unnecessary, despite meeting trauma triage criteria?
• Under which circumstance can resuscitation be stopped according to the policy?
• What is the maximum amount of Naloxone that can be given to a pediatric patient?
• Who is responsible for handling a deceased body if a patient dies in their home?
• Prior to which action must specialty reports be conducted?
• What is the location of Valley Medical in relation to Highway 280?
• What is Policy 302 related to?
• What is a key factor in classifying a limb as requiring the use of a Combat Application Tourniquet?
• What is not a requirement for submitting specialty reports?
• According to policy 115, what type of refund policy is in place?
• When should a steady alert NOT be used according to Policy 818?
• What is one critical piece of information that must be documented when restraints are applied?
• Which condition indicates immediate evaluation or resuscitation according to emergency transfer criteria?
• Which policy outlines the trauma center designation standards as a requirement?
• What is NOT a criterion indicating a patient might have an infection that needs reporting to the receiving hospital?
• Under policy 113, what levels of trauma centers are designated?
• Where should major burn victims be transported?
• What is a symptom indicating the need for CPAP in respiratory distress?
• What is the importance of including the level of patient care involvement in the PCR?
• Which protocols does the Medical Director create or regulate?
• What does the 'F' in the GFAST scale stand for?
• How should standard hospital notifications be conducted according to the policy?
• How many ambulances are allocated at level 2 of the MPMP?
• What is the appropriate action if a pediatric patient's heart rate is less than 60 and does not respond to oxygen?
• Can a physician at the scene provide direction during an emergency?
• What is an appropriate action if a patient refuses transport?
• What is the maximum single dose of epinephrine for anaphylactic shock in pediatric patients?
• Is it true that one can classify a patient as a trauma victim based on their situation and symptoms?
• An individual is legally authorized to refuse care if they are:
• If a valid DNR is present, how must it be documented during transport?
• Can ALS handoff to BLS if ALS interventions have been performed?
• Which of the following is least likely to be a consideration in pediatric trauma?
• Is it true that ALS can handoff to BLS in a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)?
• When assessing for spinal injuries, which factor is important to consider during the assessment?
• Which service is provided by Stanford Hospital?
• Which of the following best describes a patient needing 'urgent care'?
• What defines a level 5 incident in the MPMP?
• What must a physician show to validate their credentials on scene?
• What is the minimum distance you must keep from a small incident?
• What describes a legal representative for a minor?
• What does Policy 214 outline?
• How many supervisors are assigned at level 2 of the MPMP?
• How should an ambulance be positioned when on an active roadway?
• What is the maximum number of business days allowed to report a variance?
• What city is Stanford located in?
• What services does El Camino Hospital Mountain View provide?
• What is the cut-off blood sugar level to administer oral glucose?
• Which anatomic criterion includes penetrating injuries?
• If a unit determines that all personnel are accounted for and safe, do you have PAR?
• Which two cross streets are associated with Stanford?
• What is the definition of 'In extremis' patients under Policy 602?
• Which condition is NOT indicated for the use of CPAP?
• True or False: You do not have to surrender your Santa Clara badge after employment.
• What is PAR?
• What should be said if the orange button is pressed accidentally?
• Which comprehensive stroke center is located at El Camino Hospital?
• Which of the following qualifies as an Anatomic MTV Criterion?
• Why is positioning the driver's side of the ambulance angled away from traffic important?
• What does the acronym CAT stand for in EMS practices?
• What does the 'S' in GFAST assess in a stroke patient?
• What is the correct form to use for making a variance report?
• When should specialty reports be made on channel 92?
• What is one responsibility of the Fire Service within the 911 system provider rules?
• Who can be considered a legal representative for a minor?
• What is the primary job of Field Treatment Sites (FTS)?
• What happens when internal disaster is declared in an ED?
• Which information is crucial when reporting about hazardous materials on the radio?
• According to Policy 105, must each trauma center have a quality improvement program?
• According to Policy 811, what is considered Level 1 of MPMP?
• What is the primary purpose of policy 110?
• Which of the following is a sign that a minor can consent to treatment without parental approval?
• What is the correct order of the process for a personnel investigation?
• What signifies a variance C in Policy 108?
• What is the appropriate dosage of Albuterol administered to an adult for mild respiratory distress?
• What is a sign of improvement within the first 5 minutes of CPAP therapy?
• What is one of the requirements for working in Santa Clara County?
• Who is responsible for providing a C.A.N report?
• What is a contraindication for applying restraints on a patient?
• What is the maximum number of hours that each hospital can request 911 system bypass within a calendar month?
• Who is responsible for patient care if a physician on scene relinquishes it?
• What does DMSU stand for?
• For which condition is the Physio-Control Lucas Device indicated?
• How many hours do you have to report a variance if a patient is injured?
• What type of trauma care does Stanford Hospital offer?
• What is the preferred method for airway management in emergency cases?
• Which scenario indicates a need for restraints in a patient?
• Where should all MTVs be transported?
• Who is authorized to contact the base hospital for direction in medical emergencies?
• What is an indication of respiratory failure during CPAP treatment?
• What mechanism of injury could classify a case as MTV?
• What is the purpose of channel 92 on the communications/radio?
• Which authority does an EMS chief NOT possess?
• True or False: A hospital that has diverted ambulances must remain open for at least 60 minutes before being able to be on bypass again.
• What is the warbler tone?
• What does a trauma center's quality improvement program aim to enhance?
• Under what conditions can a patient be taken to the hospital of their choice?
• What is required from a patient before administering oral glucose?
• What does PAR stand for?
• During a pediatric asthma episode, what is the prescribed dosage of albuterol?
• Which criteria classify an MTV related to auto-pedestrian incidents?
• Which of the following is included in a standard hospital radio report's demographics?
• What does Policy 105 refer to?
• What does the red status indicate in the ED Receiving Status?
• What is an acceptable method for obtaining updates on EMS policies?
• What action should be taken if contact with the base is not possible and the paramedic must act according to Santa Clara county prehospital care policy?
• How many acute hospitals are reported in the local health system?
• Which hospitals are included in the Northern diversion zone?
• What is the purpose of Policy 104?
• Which two cross streets are associated with Valley Medical?
• What is the main purpose of using emergency lights on an ambulance?
• Which type of center is O'Connor Hospital?
• When dispatched with an ALS First Response Unit, what action should a BLS ambulance take if ALS units are not available?
• According to the guidelines, when can a renewal be submitted before it expires?
• If a pediatric patient is diagnosed with pneumonia, what medication is recommended?
• What is the focus of Policy 104?
• Who qualifies as a major trauma victim according to the policies?
• Which of the following provides trauma care for both adults and pediatrics?
• What is policy 110 focused on?
• When is it appropriate to use scene lights during an incident?
• True or False: Major Trauma Victims (MTVs) can be transported out of the county.
• How long does it take to process a renewal as mentioned in the guidelines?
• Which type of burn is considered a major burn criterion?
• What is a use case for a steady alert?
• Is it permissible for EMS personnel to enter a scene with imminent danger?
• What are the expected professional standards for medical personnel?
• Where should patients not classified as MTVs be taken?
• Under what circumstance can a minor legally make medical decisions according to Policy 502?
• When does a Santa Clara ID badge expire?
• What is the role of Disaster Medical Support Units (DMSU)?
• Who is always in charge at the scene of an incident according to Policy 110?
• What is the maximum duration a hospital can remain on bypass status?
• What is the maximum number of patients for level 2 of the MPMP?
• What must be done if a patient wishes for resuscitative measures in spite of a DNR order?
• Which situation would be an appropriate use of automatic CPR devices?
• How much oral glucose can be administered to a patient?
• What can make neurological assessments challenging?
• Which of the following describes a co-morbid factor to consider in triaging patients with trauma?
• During a breech delivery, what should be done if the baby's head does not readily deliver?
• What medical responsibility does a physician accept when they manage patient care?
• What is the recommended dosage of Naloxone for pediatric patients?
• Who has the final decision-making power regarding policy or protocol changes?
• Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the 911 system provider rules?
• What does a Bypass (red) status mean?
• Emergency Psychiatric Services primarily serve which type of patients?
• What is the primary focus of Policy 106?
• Which individuals have the right to refuse care according to policy 502?
• What is the maximum dose of activated charcoal for a pediatric patient under 1 year old?
• Which specific area does the Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) focus on?
• In the context of patient transport, what does DECON alert refer to?
• What is the minimum distance you should keep from a large incident?
• What is a key element of the policy development process as stated in Policy 109?
• How often can Naloxone be administered to pediatric patients?
• What tier of the MPMP is defined for incidents involving more than 1000 patients?
• Variance Reporting A in Policy 108 refers to:
• What must be done with decontaminated patients before entering the ED?
• Which is a guideline for the application of restraints?
• What must be included with a system variance form?
• What is the initial step to take for a prolapsed umbilical cord?
• What service does Kaiser Foundation San Jose specifically provide?
• Can you enter an area that's barricaded with 3 horizontal strands if it is not in red and white?
• Which assessment would you NOT perform for spinal motion restriction (SMR)?
• What should be administered to a pediatric patient in anaphylactic shock?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement for documenting a patient refusal of service?
• Who can request the warbler tone?
• What are the accepted methods of payment according to policy 115?
• What action should be taken first during a crush injury?
• What is the maximum dose of epinephrine for adults in shock treatment?
• What does the 'G' in the GFAST scale represent?
• What should EMS personnel do if they have been staged for more than ten minutes?
• What intervention is appropriate for diminished perfusion in a pediatric patient?
• What is NOT a step in the personnel investigation process?
• What does Policy 103 address?
• What is required at each Field Treatment Site (FTS) area?
• What age defines a pediatric patient?
• Which hospital is not part of the southern division zone?
• What is a key consideration when managing burn injuries?
• To which type of center can you transport ROSC patients?
• Which status in the ED Receiving Status means accepting patients?
• Which is NOT a step in managing an adult patient in shock?
• What is one method allowed for supportive care when a valid DNR is in place?
• For gynecological and obstetrical emergencies, what is one of the primary interventions?
• Which center is referred to as "Comprehensive Stroke Center"?
• What type of patients does El Camino Hospital Mountain View cater to?
• What is the minimum speed for a mechanism of injury to classify as MTV?
• According to Policy 108, when should a variance be reported if a patient is injured?
• What age range defines a neonate?
• For a pediatric patient exhibiting respiratory distress due to anaphylaxis, what additional treatment may be administered?
• For a patient scoring 3 points or less on the GFAST scale, where should they be transported?
• In which situation can resuscitation efforts be considered unnecessary according to Policy 600?
• If resuscitative efforts are withheld, what is the first step that should be taken?
• Which two cross streets are associated with Regional Medical?
• Which of the following criteria allows for immediate transfer of a patient to a Santa Clara County Trauma center using a 911 ambulance?
• What does a patient with a protruding limb likely qualify as under Policy 602?
• Why do children sustain more injuries in trauma cases compared to adults?
• What should you do if a patient wants to exit the ambulance during transport?
• What vital sign indicates a patient should be reported for septic findings?
• What is the focus of Policy 818?
• What is the maximum time a BLS ambulance can transport an emergent patient to the ED?
• Which hospital is listed under Policy 603 for locations with no specific zone?
• What should be done after withholding resuscitative efforts at a scene?
• When can oral glucose be repeated after the initial administration?
• What does the black status represent in the ED Receiving Status?
• What is the focus of Policy 602/605?
• Where should a pregnant MTV, more than 20 weeks' gestation, be transported?
• Where should a patient scoring 4 points on the GFAST scale be taken?
• What should be done first if a pediatric patient is experiencing respiratory distress?
• What is a criterion for classifying an MTV related to respiratory conditions?
• Which of the following best describes the importance of staging EMS personnel?
• What action should take place prior to entering a Life Hazard Zone?
• What should be done if an emergent patient is encountered by a non-emergency ambulance crew?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for the Physio-Control Lucas Device?
• What is one of the criteria for CPAP indication in patients with severe respiratory distress?
• Which of the following services is provided at Santa Clara Valley Medical Center (VMC)?
• What type of burn involves the deepest tissue damage?
• What level of trauma care does Good Samaritan Hospital offer?
• Channel 1 on the communications/radio is designated for which service?
• True or False: Two ventilations should be performed after 30 compressions.
• What is the purpose of Policy 102?
• If a patient has sustained both major burns and major trauma, where should they be transported?
• Besides demographics, what additional information should be included in a hospital radio report?
• Where should adult MTVs be transported according to the guidelines?
• What level of trauma does Santa Clara Valley Medical Center provide for pediatrics?
• What is the minimum requirement for BLS ambulances?
• What must employees of private ambulance providers do according to Policy 617?
• What is one of the Pediatric MTV physiologic criteria for children under 15 years old?
• What type of facility does not fall under the services of Santa Clara Valley Medical Center?
• Where are 'In extremis' patients sent according to Policy 602?
• What type of documentation is expected from medical staff?
• What are the three levels of involvement an EMT can ask a physician on scene?
• What tone is used when a dispatcher needs to communicate critical safety information?
• Which of the following is NOT a criterion for 'In extremis' patients?
• What should happen after a variance report is completed following an EMS retreat?
• What is the focus of Policy 108?
• What is the dosage of albuterol administered to pediatric patients for an allergic reaction?
• What key role does the Director of Trauma play?
• What is a criterion for identifying an Adult MTV?
• What is policy 113 about?
• If there are questions regarding triage to a designated trauma center, what should be done?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for using LMA?
• What automated CPR device is approved for non-traumatic cardiac arrests in patients 18 years or older?
• What does CQI stand for in the context of medical protocols?
• Who can initiate the Steady Alert in Santa Clara County?
• If EMS 92 is restricted, what is the recommended action for contacting the receiving facility?
• What can be administered to pediatric patients under 1 year old for general ingestion if it was consumed less than an hour prior?
• Which of the following are classified as specialty centers related to channel 92?
• What is the leading cause of bradycardia in pediatric patients?
• Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Medical Director?
• What must patients be informed of when they refuse care?
• Which of the following is NOT a trauma center in Santa Clara County?
• If a medic encounters a problem during transport, which step should be prioritized?
• What does "CAN" stand for in emergency protocols?
• In the context of policy 618, what does LCES stand for?
• What should be checked if a pediatric patient with pneumonia appears febrile?
• Which of the following is NOT a STEMI receiving center in Santa Clara County?
• What does policy 115 focus on?
• At what height does a fall classify as an MTV for children?
• True or False: Requests for inner faculty transfers are made to the ambulance companies.
• Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding CPAP for patients with DNR/POLST?
• What is Policy 102 focused on?
• Which of the following services is provided by Regional Medical Hospital Center?
• What should be done if a pediatric patient is found to be asystolic?
• For which type of burns should transportation to a major burn center be prioritized?
• What should be identified before departure for hazardous materials incidents?
• What should EMS personnel document when accessing a patient?
• What is the primary concern if a patient is placed in restraints?
• Which of the following conditions allows a minor to make medical decisions?
• Which of the following is NOT a comprehensive stroke center in Santa Clara County?
• Which policy addresses immediate changes needed during emergencies, such as the Covid-19 pandemic?
• What does a sustained increase in heart rate indicate during treatment?
• What does policy 502 address?
• Which symptom may indicate a failure to improve with treatment?
• What does the orange button on the radio signify?
• How long should administrative orders remain effective according to Policy 109?
• Which channel is designated for hospital ringdown communication?
• What occurs if a trauma patient is taken to a non-trauma facility?
• When is the use of activated charcoal contraindicated?
• Which hospitals are designated as pediatric trauma centers?
• If an ambulance arrives at a scene on an active roadway before responders, where should it park?
• Which of the following is a hospital in the southern division zone?
• Which medication should be administered for a pediatric overdose on narcotics or opioids?
• What is the primary focus of Policy 200?
• Is yellow tape appropriate for designating a LHZ?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for using the Zoll Auto-Pulse device?
• What does Policy 109 establish?
• What are administrative orders used for according to Policy 109?
• What is one of the six conditions that EMS assesses for rescuer rehabilitation?
• What classification applies to all 911 ambulance patients except those deemed extremis?
• Who has the authority to authorize helicopter transport at an emergency scene?
• When an EMS retreat occurs, who should be notified after contacting county communications?
• What is the recommended ventilation rate for adult CPR?
• What is the patient capacity for level 4 of the MPMP?
• What should be the priority when encountering an uncontrolled limb hemorrhage?
• Which of the following is NOT a condition for withholding resuscitative efforts?
• What is a common characteristic of both Zoll Auto-Pulse and Physio-Control Lucas Devices?